GATE EE 2010 Paper | EE 2010 GATE Paper | GATE Electrical Engineer 2010 Paper

GATE EE 2010 Paper | EE 2010 GATE Paper | GATE Electrical Engineer 2010 Paper

Q. No. 1 – 20 Carry One Mark Each
1. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is
(A) highly inductive (B) highly resistive
(C) purely resistive (D) purely inductive

2. The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode, the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can be made from this.
(A) The signals are not sinusoidal
(B) The amplitudes of the signals are very close but not equal
(C) The signals are sinusoidal with their frequencies very close but not equal
(D) There is a constant but small phase difference between the signals

3. The increasing order of speed of data access for the following devices is
(i) Cache Memory
(ii) CDROM
(iii) Dynamic RAM
(iv) Processor Registers
(v) Magnetic Tape
(A) (v), (ii), (iii) , (iv), (i) (B) (v), (ii), (iii) , (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i) , (iii), (iv), (v) (D) (v), (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

4.. A field excitation of 20 A in a certain alternator results in an armature current of 400A in short circuit and a terminal voltage of 2000V on open circuit. The magnitude of the internal voltage drop within the machine at a load current of 200A is
(A) 1V

5. Out of the following plant categories
(i) Nuclear (ii) Run-of-river (iii) Pump Storage (iv) Diesel The base load power plants are
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

6. For a fixed value of complex power flow in a transmission line having a sending end voltage V, the real power loss will be proportional to
(A) V (B) V2 (C) 1/V2 (D) 1/V

7. How many 200W/220V incandescent lamps connected in series would consume the same total power as a single 100W/220V incandescent lamp?
(A) not possible (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

8. The complete set of only those Logic Gates designated as Universal Gates is
(A) NOT, OR and AND Gates (B) XNOR, NOR and NAND Gate
(C) NOR and NAND Gates (D) XOR, NOR and NAND Gates

9. An SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because
(A) it can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse
(B) it conducts only during one half-cycle of an alternating current wave
(C) it can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse
(D) it can be turned ON only during one half-cycle of an alternating voltage wave

10. The trace and determinant of a 2×2 matrix are known to be -2 and -35 respectively. Its eigen values are
(A) -30 and -5 (B) -37 and -1 (C) -7 and 5 (D) 17.5 and -2
Download GATE EE 2011 Paper
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IIM Calcutta Fellow Program Admission 2012 | IIM Calcutta Fellow Program Application Form 2012 | ww.iimcal.ac.in

IIM Calcutta Fellow Program Admission 2012 | IIM Calcutta Fellow Program Application Form 2012 | ww.iimcal.ac.in

Fellow Programmes – Admissions Announcement 2012
The Fellow Programme of IIM Calcutta invites applications from candidates with proven academic backgrounds, who have the intellect, interest, and ingenuity to pursue doctoral studies in management sciences and related disciplines. Applicants must possess the ability, motivation, and discipline to sustain themselves in a rigorous doctoral programme for four-to-five years.

Eligibility
An applicant to the Fellow Programme is required to have: EITHER a Master’s degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks (or equivalent professional qualification) and a three-year Bachelor’s degree with at least 50% marks in the aggregate; OR a First Class Bachelor’s degree in Engineering (i.e., with at least 60% marks in the aggregate or an equivalent grade point average). In addition, applicant must have obtained a minimum of 50% marks in the aggregate in either the Secondary or the Higher Secondary Examination of a Board (or equivalent).
A final-year student appearing for the Bachelor’s degree examination in Engineering or Master’s degree examination in any discipline can also apply. Such a candidate, if selected, will be provisionally admitted provided (s)he completes all requirements for obtaining the degree before 30th June, 2011. Admission of the candidate will remain provisional until (s)he produces mark sheets proving that (s)he satisfies the eligibility criteria. The deadline for submitting the final year degree mark sheets is 31st December, 2011.

Admission Tests
Of the twelve areas of specialization in the Fellow Programme (see table below), an applicant can apply to at most two areas. (S)he needs to have taken the Common Admission Test (CAT) or, depending on chosen specialization(s), alternative test(s) in lieu of the CAT as specified in the following table. Applicant is required to have taken the appropriate test(s) no earlier than 24th January, 2009, and the test score(s) should be valid on 24th January, 2011.
Area of Specialization
Tests in lieu of CAT
Behavioural Sciences
GMAT / GRE / GATE / UGC-JRF in any discipline
Economics
GRE / UGC-JRF in Business Economics / Development Economics/ Economics
Finance & Control
GMAT / GRE / UGC-JRF in Commerce / Economics / Management
Human Resource Management
GMAT / GRE / GATE / UGC-JRF in any discipline
Management Information Systems
GMAT / GRE / GATE / UGC-JRF in any discipline
Marketing
GMAT / GRE / UGC-JRF in Anthropology / Economics / Management / Psychology / Sociology
Operations Management & Operations Research and Systems Analysis
GMAT / GRE / GATE (for GATE, a candidate will be required to submit his/her score(s) in (i) either the “Mathematics (MA)” Paper, or (ii) in the general “Engineering Sciences (XE)” Paper which has “Engineering Mathematics” as a compulsory component).
Public Policy and Management
GRE / UGC-JRF in Anthropology / Economics / Geography / Management/ Political Science / Public Administration / Sociology
Regional Development
GRE / UGC-JRF in Anthropology / Economics / Geography / Population Studies / Public Administration / Sociology
Sociology
UGC-JRF in Anthropology / Economics / Political Science / Sociology
Strategic Management
GMAT / GRE / GATE / UGC-JRF in Anthropology / Commerce / Defence and Strategic Studies / Economics / Environmental Science / Geography / History / Law / Management / Political Science / Psychology / Public Administration / Sociology

Application Process
An applicant is required to submit a Fellow Programme (FP) Application Form 2011 for each area of specialization that (s)he applies for. Application forms are to be downloaded from the IIMC website: http://www.iimcal.ac.in/programs/FPM/. If an applicant is unable to download the Form, (s)he can get the Forms physically collected from: The Fellow Programme Office, IIM Calcutta, Diamond Harbour Road, Kolkata 700104.

Completed Application Form(s) must be submitted along with an Application Fee of Rs.300. This fee should be paid by a crossed demand draft for Rs. 300/- payable to “Indian Institute of Management Calcutta” on a bank in Kolkata. An SC/ST/OBC applicant need not pay the application fee as long (s)he sends an attested photocopy of his/her SC/ST/OBC certificate.

When applying to two areas of specialization, an applicant is required to submit two separate application forms, complete in all respects, one for each area of specialization. However, a single payment of the application fee of Rs. 300/- will suffice for each applicant, as long as (s)he submits the two application forms at the same time (e.g., in the same mailing).
For each area of specialization applied for, two letters of recommendation (in the prescribed format) are required. Blank forms for recommendation letters, and instructions on how to return them, are contained in the Application Forms.
Applicant must ensure that a submitted Application Form is complete in all respects. Along with the Form, the applicant is required to submit the following “supporting documents”:
Certified Documents: Provide attested copies of transcripts of Academic Records/Mark Sheets/ GMAT/GATE/GRE/UGC-JRF test scores. Attestation may be done by a Faculty Member of a College/University/IIM, by a Member of a Legislative Assembly, or by a Gazetted Officer. A “key” to a transcript’s letter grade system should be included wherever necessary.
Research Summaries: Enclose summaries of your published or unpublished research work.
Completed Application Forms should reach the following address by January 24, 2011: Administrative Officer – Fellow Programmes and Research, Indian Institute of Management Calcutta, Diamond Harbour Road, Kolkata 700104.

Exemptions
An applicant who is a graduate of any one of the two-year full-time Post Graduate Programmes of any one of the Indian Institutes of Management with a Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA) of no less than 6.00/9.00 (or its equivalent), or a degree-holder of the PGDBM Programme of IIM Calcutta with a CGPA of no less than 6.5/9.00 does not need to take any Admission Test. (S)he can apply directly using the FP Application Form(s). (S)he has to pay the application fee, and meet the application deadline. After submission of Application Form(s), the selection procedure followed for such a candidate will be identical to that of all other candidates.

NRI/Foreign Applicants
An Indian student who is, or has been, a Non-resident Indian, can apply to the Fellow Programme, as can a foreign student. Irrespective of the specialization(s) that such a candidate applies for, (s)he can request that the GMAT be considered the appropriate Admission Test for him/her. (S)he needs to have taken the GMAT no earlier than 24th January, 2008 if (s)he does not hold a foreign MBA degree, and no earlier than 24th January, 2006 if (s)he does hold a foreign MBA degree.

Such an applicant must comply with the same Application Process as a domestic student – submit completed Application Form(s), pay the Application Fee, and satisfy all other criteria stated above (or their equivalents).

Interview Process
Once all valid applications are in, a subset of candidates will be short-listed (on the basis of their Admission Test scores) for an interview process. All short-listed candidates will be called for personal interviews at the IIM Calcutta campus during late March/early April 2011. Domestic candidates will be reimbursed actual AC 3-tier return train fare by the shortest route.

In a first round, candidates will be interviewed by faculty members in the area(s) of specialization to which the candidates have applied. Those who qualify in the first round will be subsequently interviewed by the faculty members of the Fellow Programme Committee, who will make the final selection decisions.

Click Here To Application Forms
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Jiwaji University Gwalior BHMS IV Prof (Old Course) Exam Result March 2011 | Jiwaji University Gwalior BHMS Result 2011

Jiwaji University Gwalior BHMS IV Prof (Old Course) Exam Result March 2011 | Jiwaji University Gwalior BHMS Result 2011

Jiwaji University Gwalior Published BHMS IV Prof (Old Course) Exam Result March 2011

Click Here To Jiwaji University Gwalior BHMS Result 2011

About Jiwaji University
Jiwaji University was established as a teaching and affiliating University on 23rd May 1964, under the provision of M. P. Government Ordinance no. 15 of 1963. Dr. Sarwapalli Radhakrishanan, the then President of India, laid the foundation stone of the University Campus on 11th December 1964.
Right from its inception, Jiwaji University started with a status of a residential and an affiliating University. The territorial jurisdiction of the affiliation extends to six districts of Gwalior and Chambal Division, viz., Gwalior, Morena, Bhind, Guna, Shivpuri and Datia. To begin with, the University had a total of 29 affiliated colleges. Those have steadily increased to more than 100 colleges. Till date of 26 Government and 7 non-Government colleges impart teaching up to postgraduate level. Some of the colleges have also developed into recognized research centers.
The university started post-graduate teaching and research from the session 1966-67 with the establishment of Schools of Studies in Botany and Zoology. The Schools of Studies in Physics, Chemistry and Ancient History, Culture and Archaeology were started from the session 1969-70. The School of Studies in Economics and Mathematics came into existence from the session 1978-79, which the School of Studies in Commerce started from the session 1980-81 and that of Biochemistry from the session 1986-87. The University also started MBA course under the School of studies in Commerce from the session 1987, during the VII plan period the School of Studies in Library and Information Science was established in 1986. Under the VIII plan development programme University has established School of Studies in Earth Science in 1991.
A post-graduate Diploma Course in tourism (PGDTM) was also started Presently the SOS in tourism is running Master in tourism administration programme . The University has also a center of foreign Language since 1986, which presently imparts diploma and certificate courses in English, French, German and Russian.
The Indira Gandhi Academy of Environment Education, on interdisciplinary programmes of environment and Eco planning was established in 1989.
A Center for M. Phil Studies in Sociology and Political Science was established in 1990.
The University science and Instrumentation Center (USIC) extends facilities for fabrication and maintenance of laboratory instruments of School of Studies and affiliated colleges. M.P. Council of Science & Technology, Bhopal has established a local cell (MPCOST) to coordinate and monitor various research projects and other scientific activities under the scheme.
The University central Library has a collection of over 1,40,000 books and about 8000 bound volumes of research journals. It also contains a section of unpublished theses. Presently more than 142 Indian and Foreign journals are being subscribed. The Library also contains Internet access, microfilm reader, 16-mm projector, and a number of films on various subjects. Beside Central library, each School of Studies has a library, well equipped with books and journals, useful for advanced study.
The physical education Department of the University takes care of the games and sports of the students. Dean, Students Welfare looks after the extra curricular activities of the University. This wing has developed advanced facilities for music, dance and drama and other performing arts with an auditorium well equipped for such events. The university has been hosting state and regional level Youth Festivals.
Dean of college development Council (DCDC) coordinates and monitors the academic activities of the affiliated college of the University. The Department of Adult and continuing Education of the University has established itself as leading centre in the region.
This is the first University in the state to implement the self supporting programmes. We started this activity as far back as 1987 by introducing the PG Diploma in Computer Applications. Subsequently, the university started job oriented courses in -
* Computer science,
* Chemicals, sales and marketing management,
* Instrumentation and commercial methods of Industrial analysis,
* Environmental Chemistry,
* Microbiology,
* Molecular Biology and Immunology,
* Master in computer application,
* Bachelor in Physical Education,
* Master of Physical Education,
* Refrigeration technology are being started very shortly, etc.
We have introduced several others including M.Sc. Neuroscience, M.Sc. Information Technology, BA in Jyotirvigyan, M.Sc. Food Technology, M.Sc. Molecular and Human Genetics, M.Sc. Medical Plants and Herbal Resource Management, M.Sc. Tech. (Industrial Maths with Computer Application), M.Sc Remote Sensing and GIS, M.Sc. Bio-Physics etc.
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SCERT Gurgaon Prospectus Form | SCERT Haryana Gurgaon Prospectus | SCERT Haryana D.T.Ed Counselling Schedule 2011

SCERT Gurgaon Prospectus Form | SCERT Haryana Gurgaon Prospectus | SCERT Haryana D.T.Ed Counselling Schedule 2011

Counselling Schedule:
Tentative dates: September 1, 2011 onwards.
The final Schedule of Counselling will be published in daily news papers viz. Dainik
Bhaskar, Dainik Jagran and The Tribune in the last week of August 2010.

SCERT Haryana Gurgaon D.Ed Counselling Result 2011
SCERT Gurgaon Counselling Schedule for Admission to D.Ed./D.Ed (Urdu) (2011-13)

Admission Procedure:
The Merit List will purely be prepared on the basis of percentage of marks obtained in 10+2 examination streamwise (Arts, Science, Commerce & Vocational) and distribution of seats will be as under:-
Stream % of seats allotted
Arts 35 %
Science 35 %
Commerce 28 %
Vocational Education 02 %

Note:
1. If the seats in Science stream remain vacant then it will be converted into Commerce stream and vice versa.
2. If in all three i.e. Science, Commerce and Vocational Education stream seats remain vacant then it will be converted into Arts stream seats.
3. The detail of Institution wise seats is available on SCERT website www.scertharyana.in

Reservation :-
Reservation in different categories will be made as per Haryana govt. instructions issued from time to time. 50% of the seats shall be reserved for the candidates of the following reserved
categories:-
Category

i) Scheduled Castes: 20%
ii) Backward Classes: 27%
Block – A 16%
Block-B 11%

(Except socially advanced persons/section i.e. creamy layer) iii) Physically Handicapped (OH) 3% Note: In case the quota reserved for physically handicapped remains unutilized due to non availability of suitable & eligible handicapped candidates, it will be offered to the ex-servicemen (Self) and their wards (1%) and the dependents of freedom fighters (1%) Further it has been decided to allow 3% horizontal reservation to Ex-servicemen (self), freedom fighters and their dependents by providing reservation within reservation of 1% of General category 1% out of scheduled castes and 1% from backward class’s category for admission to the various education institutions of the Government and Government aided/self financing colleges/ institutes located in Haryana.

SCERT PROSPECTUS
SCERT PROSPECTUS FORM
For More Details Click Here
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MAT Sept 2011 Participating Management Institute From North Zone | List of Management Institute Participating in MAT Sept 2011

MAT Sept 2011 Participating Management Institute From North Zone | List of Management Institute Participating in MAT Sept 2011

LIST OF THE PARTICIPATING MANAGEMENT INSTITUTE FROM NORTH ZONE
S No
MI_Code Institute Name
City
Website address
1
2088
ABES Institute of Management
Ghaziabad
www.abes.in
2
2404
Academy of Management Studies
Dehradun
www.amsdoon.com
3
2096
Accurate Business School
Greater Noida
www.absedu.in
4
2049
Accurate Institute of Management & Technology
Greater Noida
www.accurate.in
5
2110
ACN School of Business
Aligarh
www.acnbuss.org
6
1101
AIMA-Centre for Management Education (PGDM)
New Delhi
www.aima-ind.org
7
1102
AIMA-Centre for Management Education (PGDITM)
New Delhi
www.aima-ind.org
8
2010
Amity University
Noida
www.amity.edu
9
2518
AR Institute of Management & Technology
Meerut
www.arimt.in
10
1111
Asia Pacific Institute of Management
New Delhi
www.asiapacific.edu
11
2509
BDS Institute of Management
Meerut
www.bdsim.com
12
1142
Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan’s Usha & Lakshmi Mittal Institute of Management
New Delhi
www.bulmim.ac.in
13
2055
BLS Institute of Management
Ghaziabad
www.blsim.org
14
1231
BLS Institute of Management Studies
Bahadurgarh
www.blsims.com
15
1222
Brij Mohan Institute of Management & Technology
Gurgaon
www.bimt.edu.in
16
1421
Chandigarh Business School
Mohali
www.cbsmohali.org
17
1704
Chitkara University
Barotiwala-Solan
www.chitkara.in
18
1175
Delhi School of Professional Studies & Research
Delhi
www.dspsr.in
19
2501
Dewan VS Group of Institutions
Meerut
www.dewaninstitutes.org
20
2003
Dr Gaur Hari Singhania Institute of Management & Research
Kanpur
www.ghsimr.org
21
2073
Dr Virendra Swarup Institute of Computer Studies
Kanpur
www.vsicskanpur.org
22
2510
Forte Institute of Technology
Meerut
www.forte.ac.in
23
1315
Galaxy Global Educational Trust’s Group of Institutions
Ambala
www.galaxyglobaledu.com
24
2026
Galgotias Business School
Greater Noida
www.galgotiasbschool.in
25
2014
GL Bajaj Institute of Management & Research Greater
Noida
www.glbimr.org
26
2072
Global Institute of Management & Technology
Noida
www.gimt-noida.com
27
2047
GNIT College of Management
Greater Noida
www.gnim.co.in
28
2004
Graduate School of Business & Administration
Greater Noida
www.gsbaindia.com
29
2039
Greater Noida Institute of Management
Greater Noida
www.gnim.co.in
30
1126
Guru Nanak Institute of Management
New Delhi
www.gnimonline.org
31
2068
Harlal Institute of Management & Technology
Greater Noida
www.himt.ac.in
32
2077
HR Institute of Professional Studies
Ghaziabad
www.hrips.ac.in
33
2081
I Business Institute
Greater Noida
www.ibusinessinstitute.org
34
2424
ICFAI University
Dehradun
www.iuuttarakhand.edu.in
35
2228
IEM Institute of Business Management
Barabanki
www.iemibm.ac.in
36
2224
IILM Academy of Higher Learning
Lucknow
www.iilmlko.ac.in
37
2018
IILM College of Management Studies
Greater Noida
www.iilmcms.ac.in
38
1171
IILM Graduate School of Management
Greater Noida
www.iilmgsm.ac.in
39
1202
IILM Institute for Higher Education
Gurgaon
www.iilm.edu
40
2504
IIMT Management College
Meerut
www.iimtindia.net
41
2071
Institute of Advanced Management & Research
Ghaziabad
www.iamrindia.com
42
2216
Institute of Environment & Management
Lucknow
www.iemmba.com
43
2446
Institute of Management & Research
Ghaziabad
www.imr.edu.in
44
2006
Institute of Management Education
Ghaziabad
www.imesahibabad.ac.in
45
2051
Institute of Management Studies
Ghaziabad
www.ims-ghaziabad.ac.in
46
1314
Institute of Science & Technology
Yamuna Nagar
www.istk.org
47
2016
Institute of Technology & Science
Ghaziabad
www.itsgzb.ac.in
48
2029
Institute of Technology & Science-Institute of Management
Greater Noida
www.itsim.edu.in
49
1115
International Management Centre
New Delhi
www.imc-nd.ac.in
50
2019
Ishan Institute of Management & Technology
Delhi
www.ishanfamily.com
51
1128
Jagannath International Management School
New Delhi
www.jagannath.org
52
2070
Jagran Institute of Management
Kanpur
www.jimkanpur.ac.in
53
2043
Jaipuria Institute of Management
Noida
www.jimnoida.ac.in
54
2092
Jassar Business School
Modinagar
www.jbs.org.in
55
1210
JK Business School
Gurgaon
www.jkps.edu.in
56
1313
JK Institute of Management & Technology
Karnal
www.jkinstitutes.com
57
1218
JK Padampat Singhania Institute of Management & Technology
Gurgaon
www.jkps.edu.in
58
2511
Kalka Institute for Research & Advanced Studies
Meerut
www.kalkaeducationalsoceity.com
59
2099
Kanpur Institute of Management Studies
Kanpur
www.greatgangas.com
60
2091
KIET School of Management
Ghaziabad
www.kiet-kgm.org
61
1220
KNS World Management College
Gurgaon
www.knswmc.com
62
1424
Lovely Professional University
Phagwara
www.lpu.in
63
2017
Maharishi Institute of Management
Noida
www.maharishiinstituteofmanagement.com
64
2218
Motilal Rastogi School of Management
Lucknow
www.mlrsm.org
65
1127
New Delhi Institute of Management
New Delhi
www.ndimdelhi.org
66
1119
NIILM Centre for Management Studies
New Delhi
www.niilm.com
67
1240
Om Institute of Technology & Management
Hisar
www.oitmhisar


68
2451
Roorkee College of Management & Computer Applications
Roorkee
www.rcm.org.in
69
2461
Seth Bimal Prasad Jain Trust Group of Institutions
Roorkee
www.phonicedu.com
70
1233
Sheela Devi Institute of Management & Technology
Faridabad
www.sdimt.in
71
1705
Shoolini University of Biotechnology & Management Science
Solan
www.shooliniunversity.com
72
1306
Shri Balwant Institute of Management
Sonepat
www.sbim.in
73
1312
Shri Balwant Institute of Technology
Sonepat
www.sbim.in
74
2098
Taksila Business School Greater
Noida
www.taksilabusinessschool.ac.in
75
1170
University of Petroleum & Energy Studies
Dehradun
www.upes.ac.in
76
2053
Vishveshwarya School of Business Management
Greater Noida
www.vgi.ac.in
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JNTU Kakinada Updates | JNTU Kakinada CSE 4-1 Mid-1 Online Test Sample Questions | JNTUK Mid I online Test Papers

JNTU Kakinada Updates | JNTU Kakinada CSE 4-1 Mid-1 Online Test Sample Questions | JNTUK Mid I online Test Papers

JNTUK MID-1 NETWORK PROGRAMMING
1.The TCP option used to prevent data corruption caused by old delayed or duplicated segments is__________.
a)Mss b)timestamp c)Window scale d)byte manipulation.

2.TCP sequences data by associating a ________with everybyte that it sends.
a)synchronous number b)sequence number c)assynchronous no d)socket no.

3.In TCP 3-way handshake min. no.of packets required are_____.
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)0.

4.IPV6 provides packet delivery service for_______.
a)TCP b)UDP c)SCTP d)ICMP.

5.A common way to describe the layers in a network.
a)ISO b)OSI c)MTUd)IP.

6.DLPI also provides access to _______layer.
a)physical b)datalink c)network d)transport.

7.TCP is a___protocol.
a)complex b)unreliable c)connection oriented d)both a and c

8.UDP is a ______protocol.[PR]
a)complex b)unreliable c)connection oriented d)both a and c

9.TCP establishes connection using ____way handshake and terminates using ___packet exchange.
a)3,4 b)2,3 c)4,3 d)3,2

10.___________ is diagnostic application that use ICMP.
a)PING b)RIP c)TELNET d)SUN RPC

11._____ protocol handles error and control information between routers and hosts.
a)SCTP b)ICMP c)IGMP d)ARP.

12.The client issues an active open by calling___________.
a)socket b)bind c)listen d)connect.

13.In TCP termination, the end that receives FIN performs _______.
a)active close b)passive close c)active open d)passive open.

14._______layer of OSI participates in end to end communication.
a)data link b)network c)transport d)physical.

15.The maximum size of an IPV4 datagram is ________.
a)65,535B b)64KB c)65,585B d)both a and b.

16.The smallest MTUin the path between two hosts is called______.
a)ethernet MTU b)path MTU c)wireless MTU d)link MTU.

17.______layers are present in a router .[@PR]
a)1 b)3 c)4 d)7.

18.The minimum link MTU for IPV4 is ________.
a)64B b)1280B c)68B d)1500B.

19.__________is not a part of a socket pair.
a)foreign IP address b)local port c)foreign port d)Sequence number.

20.___________is broadcast address.
a)0.0.0.0 b)1.1.1.1 c)255.255.255.255 d)both a&b.

21.A process sends messages into, and recives from, the network through its ____.
a)link adapter b)socket c)physical link d)datalink.

22.________layers are present in a switch.
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)7.

23.The version of the FAQ will only cover sockets of the_____family.
a)AF_UNIX b)AF_INET c)I_LINGER d)so_LINGER

24.Sockets are either______
a)connection less b)connection oriented c)both d)SIGPIPE

25.AF_UNIX is used for_____
a)UNIX IPC b)AF_INET c)FAQ d)AF_UNIX

26.shut down is useful for deliniating when you are done providing a request to a server by using_______
a)UDP b)TTCP c)TCP d)ARP

27.TCP guarantees all data transmitted when you close a socket,the server goes into a_______state
a)TIME_WAIT b)REQUEST_STATE c)RESPONSE_STATE d)TIME_DELAY

28.Instead of Berkeley_derived implementations normally used for_______
a)60 sec b)80 sec c)120 sec d)30 sec [@PR]

29.In both select() and poll() are being standardised by_________
a)BSD/OS 2.1 b)POSIX 1003.lg c)RFC 1014 d)4.4 BSD

30.Non_unix systems may not allow______on sockets
a)recv/send() b)get()/close() c)read()/write() d)send()/recv

31.A connection that has been closed by the one end to another ends TCP responds with an_____
a)RST b)FIN c)FQDN d)TTCP

32.In TCP’Out-of-bound’ data is called as_______
a)main data b)in_band data c)priority_data d)urgent_data

33.The practical upshot of the binding a port number<1024 is reserved to processes having an effective UID==________
a)node b)port c)root d)bind

34.______allows your server to bind to an address which is in a time_wait state
a)so_reuseport b)so_reuseaddr c)inaddr_any d)inport_any

35.If you get a_____,it will be followed by two more characters.
a)oxfb b)ox03 c)oxof3 d)oxff

36.on some stacks,apparently only those with multi cast support,i get duplicate incoming messages on the_____ socket.
a)INADDR_BROADCAST b)INADDR_ANY c)SO_REUSEADDR d)SO_REUSEPORT

37.____must be used to multicast messages at the same time
a)UDP b)TCP c)TTCP d)ICMP

38.UDP socket must be connected to receive_____ errors.
a)TCP b)IP c)ICMP d)IGMP

39.LINUX will return them on ____ sockets
a)connected b)inter connected c)un connected d)fully connected

40.TCP/IP implementations must support a minimum IP datagram size of _____ bytes
a)65516 b)556 c)65517 d)576

41.TCP or UDP port number are always stored in the structure in network_____order
a)bit b)byte c)char d)string

42.socket address structures are used only on a given_____
a)host b)client c)server d)port

43.The sockaddr_storage structure is defined by including the _____header.
a)#define SIN6_LEN b)in_addr_t c) d)

44.The socket address structures all contain a____byte length field.
a)256 b)2 c)1 d)232

45.Bind,connect and send to pass a socket address structure from the process to the_______
a)kernel b)o.s c)s/w d)h/w

46.The ifc_len member of the____ structure.
a)sysctl b)ifconf c)sock addr_un d)sock addr_in6

47.Byte ordering used by a given system as the ____byte order
a)client b)host c)server d)port

48.most internet standards use the term octet instead of byte to mean an ______quantity.
a)8 bit b)4 bit c)8 byte d)4 byte

49.Berkely_derived functions the only one we use in this text is______
a)ANSIC b)bcopy c)bcmp d)bzero

50.The ANSIC____function must be used when the fields overlap.
a)memset b)memmove c)memcpy d)memcmp

51.The strptr argument to____ cannot be a null pointer.
a)inet_pton b)inet_addrstrlen c)inet_ntop d)inet6_addrstrlen

52._____ is it requires the caller to pass a pointer to a binary address.
a)sock_ntop b)inet_ntop c)af_inet d)sock_bind_wild

53.Most TCP/IP implementations provide echo server using ______ protocol
A) TCP B) UDP C)both TCP, UDP D)ICMP

54._____ is used to read data from socket
A)read B)writen C)readline D)fgets

55.______ function is used to write data to standard o/p [@PR]
A)writen B) fputs C)fgets D)read

56.______ returns null pointer when it encounters EOF/error
A)fputs B)fgets C)read D)readline

57.fgets and fputs are used in _____ function
A)str_echo B)str_cli C)readline D)writen

58.If client & server are running on different hosts, then client host would display only _____socket
A)server parent
B)server child
C)client
D)both server sockets

59._____ command is uses to check status and relationships of processes
A)ps B)tcpserver01 C)netstat D)tcpcli01

60.PPID of child is _____
A)parent’s PID B)shell C)bash PPID D)PID of child

61.WCHAN column in ps command o/p shows tcp-data-wait condition when process is blocked in
A)accept B)socket i/p or output
C) terminal i/o D)connect

62.Terminal EOF character which terminates the client is
A)D B)S C)control+D D)Z

63._______ function terminates by calling exit
A)str_cli B)str_echo
C)child function D)client main function

64.When readline returns 0, str_echo function returns to
A)server child main B)client main
C)str_cli D)server main

65.____ signal is sent to server when server child enters Z state.
A)SIGKILL B)SIGCHLD C)SIGSTOP D)SIG_IGN

66.Signal that cannot be ignored by setting its disposition to SIG_IGN
A)SIGCHLD B)SIGKILL C)SIGSTO D)both b&c

67.When signal being caught is SIGALRM, then ____ is set
A)SA_RESTART B)SA_MASK
C)SA_HANDLER D)SA_INTERRUPPT

68._____ is set to empty set to mean that no additional signals are blocked other than signal being caught
A)SA_RESTART B)SA_MASK
C)SA_HANDLER D)SA_INTERRUPT

69._____ is used to selectively block and unblock a set of signals
A)SA_MASK B)SIGKILL
C)SIGSTOP D)SIGPROCMASK

70.Berkeley derived implementations never automatically restart _____ function
A)select B)accept C)recvfrom D)read

71._____ value of PID says to wait for first of our children to terminate in waitpid function
A)0 B)-1 C)1 D)-2

72._______ must be coded correctly using waitpid to prevent any Zombies from being left around
A)SIGCHLD B)SA_HANDLER
C)STR_CLI D)SA_INTERRUPT

73.When a process writes to socket that has received an RST, ______ signal is sent to process
A)SIGCHLD B)SIGPIPE
C)SIGKILL D)SIG_IGN

74.Assuming server host is crashed and if there were no responses at all to client’s data segment, then error is [@PR]
A)EHOSTUNREACH B)ECONNABORTED
C)ETIMEDOUT D)ENETUNREACH

75.Berkeley derived implementations retransmit data segments ____ times
A)13 B)10 C)11 D)12

76.Even if the client is no actively sending data, techniques used to detect crashing of server host is[@PR]
A)ECONNRESET B)SO_KEEPALIVE
C)WNOHANG D)ETIMEDOUT

77.When a UNIX system is shutdown, init process normally sends _____ signal to all processes first
A)SIGKILL B)SIGSTOP
C)SIGTERM D)SIGCHLD

78._____ function is used in our client to detect termination of server process as soon as it occur[@PR]
A)select B)poll C)both a & b D)accept

79.________ option must be specified in order to tell waitpid not to block if there are running children that have not yet terminated
A)ETIMEDOUT B)WNOHANG
C)SO_KEEPALIVE D)SIGTERM

80.POSIX way to establish the disposition of a signal is to call ____ function
A)signal B)SIG_INT C)sigaction D)SIG_DFL

81.UNIX signals are {@PRS}
A) Queued B)not queued C)stacked D)None

82.Which of the following is not a choice for the disposition of signal when sigaction function is called
A)SIG_IGN PR B)SIG_DFL
C)handler D)SIGCHLD

89.____________ is the process in which application sits in a loop calling “recvform” on a non blocking descriptor.
a) Select b) polling c) both d) blocking I/O

90. Error is returned instead of putting the process to sleep in ___Model
a) Blocking I/O b) Non blocking I/O
c) Signal driven I/O d) asynchronous I/O

91. The signal which is used to tell that descriptor is ready is ________
a) Select PR b)Ewould block c) SIGIO d) str-cli

92.For “wait forever” condition the time out pointer in the select function is declared as_________
a)always true PR b)always false c)zero d)null

93.The macro word void FD_CLR(int fd,fd_set *fdset) indicates ____
a)clear all bits in fd set b)turn on the bit for fd in fd set
c)turn off the bit for fd in fd set d)none

94.If a descriptor is not ready then all the bits in the descriptor are____
a)clear PR b)set to garbage value
c)set to initial value d)set to null value

95.A write operation on the socket will generate _____after the write half connection is closed
a)SO_RCVLOWAT b)SIGIO c)SIGPIPE d)str_cli

96.The operation of close depends on the value of _________[@PR]
a)STR_CLI b)SO_LINGER c)stdine of d)ping program

97.By default all sockets are_____
a)blocking b)Non-blocking c)synchronous d)asynchronous

98.The result testing of existing client connection by checking descriptors is returned by_____
a)str_cli b)poll c)select d)both b&c

99.The solution to the denial of service attack is_________
1)use Non-blocking I/O
2)identify the identity of client before accepting state
3)place a time out
a)only 3 b)both 1&2 c)both 1&3 d) all the above

100.The signal mask is used to ____
a)to test the global variables b)disable the delivery of certain signals
c)both 1&2 d)none

101.In poll ___________is considered priority band.
a)the presence of error b)TCP’s out of band data
c)regular TCP data d)all the above

102._______is called to wait for new connections or existing connection[@PR]
a)poll b)pselect c)select d)none

103.If the time out is INFTIM then it describes
a)wait for certain period b)wait for ever
c)return immediate d)none

104.__________function is the posix way to set a socket for non-blocking I/O
a)get sockopt b)setsockopt c)fcntl d)ioctl

105.________option in TCP gives detailed information about all the packets sent and received
a)SO_BROADCAST b)SO_DEBUG c)SO_LINGER d)SO_KEEPALIVE

106.______socket option specifies how the close function operates in connection oriented protocol
a)SO_CLOSE b)SO_LINGER c)SO_DEBUG d)none

107.In the function if close ,1_onoff=0 then its functionality will be__
a)no more receives on the socket
b)no more sends on the socket
c)descriptor reference will be -1
d)both a&b

108.Bandwidth delay product is [@PR]
a)bandwidth*RTT b)bandwidth*time to leave
c)both a&b d)none

109.The receive low_watermark and send low_watermark are used by
a)select b)poll c)pselect d)all

110.________allows a listening server to start and bind its well known port
a)SO_RCVLOAMAT b)SO_SNOLOWAT
c)SO_SNDTIMO d)SO_REUSEADDR

111.___is used with multicasting to allow some application to run many times on same host
a)so_RESUSEPORT’S completely duplicate binding
b)so_REUSEADDR completely duplicate binding
c)both a&b
d)none

112.___option specifies the receive IPv6 routing header is returned as ancillary data by recvmsg
a)IPv6_RTHDR b)IPv6_NEXTHOP c)IPv6_PKTINFO d)IPv6_HOPOPTS

113.________option specifies that any received IPv6 destination options are to be returned as ancillary data by recvmsg
a)IPv6_RTHDR b)IPv6_NEXTHOP c)IPv6_PKTINFO d)IPv6_DSTOPTS

114.____TCP option specifies the amount of time in seconds before a connection is closed
a)TCP_keepalive b)TCP_MAXRT c)TCP_MAXSEG d)TCP_NONDELAY

115.The common generator of smaller packet(s) is/are
a)Rlogin client b)TELNET client c)both a&b d)none

116._______option automatically terminates half open connection
a)SO_KEEPALIVE b)SO_LINGER c)SO_REUSEADDR d)none

117.Non-blocking I/O can be set using ______command
a)F_SETFLAG b)F_SETFL
c)f_SETOWN d)F_GETDOWN

118.If a socket creates a socket then
a)it has no owner

b)inherits the owner of the socket by which it is created
c)it has default owner d)none
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AIMA Admit Card Sept 2011 | AIMA MAT Admit Card Sept 2011 | MAT Admit Card Sept 2011 | www.aima-ind.org

AIMA Admit Card Sept 2011 | AIMA MAT Admit Card Sept 2011 | MAT Admit Card Sept 2011 | www.aima-ind.org

MAT Sept 2011 Test Centres:
* Test Centre City list is provided in the bulletin. Test Venues for Paper-Based Test and Computer Based Test are different.
* The Paper-Based Test will take place only on one day i.e., 05 September 2010 at one time slot i.e., 10.00am-12.30pm, whereas the Computer Based Test will take place from 11 September 2011 onwards in different time slots.
* If the number of candidates registered for Computer Based Test is few/limited, these candidates have to appear for the Paper-Based Test on 05 September 2010 only.

Admit Card:
* All provisionally registered candidates can down load their Admit Card from AIMA website link: www.aima-ind.org/mat_centre.aspx 7 days before the Paper Based test date i.e., with effect from 28 August 2010 (Saturday).
* Specific Admit Card will be generated both for the candidates opted for the Paper Based Test and for the Computer Based Test.
* Admit Card would be having Candidate Name, Form No, Roll NO, Test Date, Test Time and Test Venue Address. Candidate has to strictly follow the date and time allotted to them in the case of Computer Based Test.
* Candidates applied for Computer Based Test and who have been permitted to appear for the Computer Based Test; have to down load the Admit Card 7 days before the Paper Based Test date i.e., with effect from 28 August 2010 (Saturday) from AIMA website. Candidates accessing the website the earliest can choose the Date and Time of his/her choice subject to availability. Those who have not opted the date and time slot for 4-5 days; will be automatically allotted date and time slot by the system. No request for change of date and time slot can be entertained.
* One candidate can appear only for one date for the September 2010 MAT.

Click Here To Download MAT Sept 2011 Admit Card
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CAT 2011 Registration Guide | CAT IIIM Registration Forms 2011 | CAT 2011 Online Registration | CAT 2011 Vouchers

CAT 2011 Registration Guide | CAT IIIM Registration Forms 2011 | CAT 2011 Online Registration | CAT 2011 Vouchers

Indian Institutes of Management (IIM)
Common Admission Test (CAT) 2010 Registration Guide


Important Instructions
1. Check your eligibility for CAT 2010 on www.catiim.in.
2. You must purchase a CAT 2010 voucher from selected list of Axis Bank branches prior to beginning the online registration process. More information may be found on www.catiim.in.
3. “*” indicates mandatory field. The boxes marked with this symbol must be filled in or you will not be allowed to complete your registration.
4. Ensure you have a valid and unique email address before you begin the registration process.

Overview
To register to take the CAT 2011, go to www.catiim.in and click on the “Register for CAT 2010” link. You can register and schedule for the CAT 2010 from 30 August – 30 September 2010.

During registration, you will:
1. Create a profile.
2. Fill out the CAT application.
3. Schedule your test.

Estimated time to complete this process: 20-30 minutes.
Before you begin, you should gather all the information you will need to complete the registration process, including your voucher, educational history, work experience, and a list of the IIM programmes to which you are applying.

Opening Screen
On the first screen of the registration website, you will see two boxes – “New users” and “Existing users.” The first time you come to this website, please follow the instructions for “New users.” This includes candidates who previously registered for CAT 2009.

Voucher
For “New users,” you must enter your voucher number. Use a coin and gently scratch (as illustrated on the right) to obtain your voucher number.

Captcha
You will see a special set of characters displayed on the screen. You will need to retype the characters in the box provided. These characters, called “Captchas,” are a safety feature designed so the computer knows a human is entering the voucher number and not a computer program. If you have trouble reading the characters, you can click the audio icon or the refresh icon. Once you have entered the Captchas, click on “Begin My Registration.” This will take you to the next section, which is “Create a Profile.”

1. Create a Profile
In this section, you will enter basic contact information.
Your name and email
1. You should enter your name exactly as it appears in your school-leaving certificate.
2. Enter your email address. This is where your Admit Card email will be sent.
Create a login
Creating a login enables you to log back in later if you need to make changes, or request a resend of your Admit Card or CAT application.
1. Username. Must be a combination of alphanumeric characters (letters and numbers) but does not contain spaces or special characters. The maximum length allowed is 50 characters.
2. Password. Must be 7-20 characters long and contain at least one alpha and one numerical character.
3. Secret reminder question. If you forget your username and password, this question will help verify your identity.
4. Read the Data Privacy Policy and indicate your agreement to the policy. Agreement is required to register for the CAT.

Additional contact information
1. Primary telephone number. Enter the entire number. Mobile number is recommended as Prometric may send important CAT related text messages by SMS.
2. Secondary telephone number. You may enter either a landline or another mobile number. Include Area Code/STD code in case of a landline number.
3. Postal Address. This is where you would like correspondence sent.
Click “Save & Continue” to move on to the next section, which is the CAT Application.
Note that once your profile has been created and saved, you will no longer be able to use your voucher number to create another profile. Changes to your name or username will not be allowed once you leave this section.
For More Details about CAT 2011 Registration Guide Click Here
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UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination Scheme | UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices' Examination 2011 Syllabus

UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination Scheme | UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices' Examination 2011 Syllabus

Scheme of Examination
The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan.

Part I: Written examination carrying a maximum of 600 marks in the subjects as shown below.

Part II :Personality Test carrying a maximum of 200 marks in respect of only those candidates who are declared qualified on the results of written examination.
2.The subjects of the written examination under Part I, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject/paper shall be as follows :


SubjectsCode No.Time AllowedMaximum Marks
Paper-IGeneral Ability Test (English, General Knowledge and Psychological Test)012 Hours200
Paper-IIPhysical Sciences (Physics and Chemistry)02
2 Hours200
Paper-IIIMathematics
032 Hours200



Total Marks 600

3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of Objective (multiple choice answer) Type questions only. The Question Papers (Test Booklets) will be set in English only.
4. In the question papers, wherever required, SI units will be used.
5. Question Papers will be approximately of the Intermediate standard.
6. Candidates must write the answers in their own hand. In no circumstances, will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them.
7. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
8. Candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not, therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
Paper-I
(i) English
The questions will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding and command of the language.
(ii) General Knowledge
The questions will be designed to test a candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. The standard of answers to questions should be as expected of students of standard 12 or equivalent.
Man and his environment
Evolution of life, plants and animals, heredity and environment-Genetics, cells, chromosomes, genes.
Knowledge of the human body-nutrition, balanced diet, substitute foods, public health and sanitation including control of epidemics and common diseases. Environmental pollution and its control. Food adulteration, proper storage and preservation of food grains and finished products, population explosion, population control. Production of food and raw materials. Breeding of animals and plants, artificial insemination, manures and fertilizers, crop protection measures, high yielding varieties and green revolution, main cereal and cash crops of India.

History, Politics and Society in India
Vedic, Mahavir, Budhdha, Mauryan, Sunga, Andhra, Kushan. Gupta ages (Mauryan Pillars, Stupa Caves, Sanchi, Mathura and Gandharva Schools, Temple architecture, Ajanta and Ellora). The rise of new social forces with the coming of Islam and establishment of broader contacts. Transition from feudalism to capitalism. Opening of European contacts. Establishment of British rule in India. Rise of nationalism and national struggle for freedom culminating in Independence.

Constitution of India and its characteristic features – Democracy, Secularism, Socialism, equality of opportunity and Parliamentary form of Government. Major political ideologies-democracy, socialism, communism and Gandhian idea of non-violence. Indian political parties, pressure groups, public opinion and the press, electoral system.

India’s foreign policy and non-alignment-Arms race, balance of power. World organisation-political, social, economic and cultural. Important events (including sports and cultural activities) in India and abroad during the past two years.
Broad features of Indian social system: The caste system, hierarchy – recent changes and trends. Minority social institution – marriage, family, religion and acculturation.
Division of labour, co-operation, conflict and competition, Social control – reward and punishment, art, law, customs, propaganda, public opinion, agencies of social control – family, religion, state educational institutions; factors of social change- economic, technological, demographic, cultural; the concept of revolution.

Social disorganisation in India – Casteism, communalism, corruption in public life, youth unrest, beggary, drugs, delinquency and crime, poverty and unemployment.

Social planning and welfare in India, community development and labour welfare; welfare of Scheduled Castes and backward classes.

Money – Taxation, price, demographic trends, national income, economic growth. Private and Public Sectors; economic and non-economic factors in planning, balanced versus imbalanced growth, agricultural versus industrial development; inflation and price stabilization, problem of resource mobilisation. India’s Five Year Plans.
(iii) Psychological Test
The questions will be designed to assess the basic intelligence and mechanical aptitude of the candidate.
Solar system and the earth, Seasons, Climate, Weather, Soil-its formation, erosion. Forests and their uses. Natural calamities cyclones, floods, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions. Mountains and rivers and their role in irrigation in India. Distribution of natural resources and industries in India. Exploration of under-ground minerals including Oil Conservation of natural resources with particular reference to the flora and fauna of India.

Paper-II
(i) Physics
Length measurements using vernier, screw gauge, spherometer and optical lever. Measurement of time and mass.
Straight line motion and relationships among displacement, velocity and acceleration.
Newton’s laws of motion, Momentum, impulse, work, energy and power.
Coefficient of friction.
Equilibrium of bodies under action of forces. Moment of a force, couple. Newton’s law of gravitation. Escape velocity. Acceleration due to gravity.
Mass and Weight; Centre of gravity, Uniform circular motion, centripetal force, simple Harmonic motion. Simple pendulum.
Pressure in a fluid and its variation with depth. Pascal’s law. Principle of Archimedes. Floating bodies, Atmospheric pressure and its measurement.
Temperature and its measurement. Thermal expansion, Gas laws and absolute temperature. Specific heat, latent heats and their measurement. Specific heat of gases. Mechanical equivalent of heat. Internal energy and First law of thermodynamics, Isothermal and adiabatic changes. Transmission of heat; thermal conductivity.
Wave motion; Longitudinal and transverse waves. Progressive and stationary waves, Velocity of sound in gas and its dependence on various factors. Resonance phenomena (air columns and strings).
Reflection and refraction of light. Image formation by curved mirrors and lenses, Microscopes and telescopes. Defects of vision.
Prisms, deviation and dispersion, Minimum deviation. Visible spectrum.
Field due to a bar magnet, Magnetic moment, Elements of Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetometers. Dia, para and ferromagnetism.
Electric charge, electric field and potential, Coulomb’s law.
Electric current; electric cells, e.m.f. resistance, ammeters and voltmeters. Ohm’s law; resistances in series and parallel, specific resistance and conductivity. Heating effect of current.
Wheatstone’s bridge, Potentiometer.
Magnetic effect of current; straight wire, coil and solenoid electromagnet; electric bell.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in magnetic field; moving coil galvanometers; conversion to ammeter or voltmeter.
Chemical effects of current; Primary and storage cells and their functioning, Laws of electrolysis.
Electromagnetic induction; Simple A.C. and D.C. generators. Transformers, Induction coil, Cathode rays, discovery of the electron, Bohr model of the atom. Diode and its use as a rectifier.
Production, properties and uses of X-rays.
Radioactivity; Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays.
Nuclear energy; fission and fusion, conversion of mass into energy, chain reaction.
(ii) Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
1. Atomic structure; Earlier models in brief. Atom as at three dimensional model. Orbital concept. Quantum numbers and their significance, only elementary treatment.
Pauli’s Exclusion Principle. Electronic configuration. Aufbau Principle, s.p.d. and f. block elements.
Periodic classification only long form. Periodicity and electronic configuration. Atomic radii, Electro-negativity in period and groups.
2. Chemical Bonding, electro-valent, co-valent, coordinate covalent bonds. Bond Properties, sigma and Pie bonds, Shapes of simple molecules like water, hydrogen sulphide, methane and ammonium chloride. Molecular association and hydrogen bonding.
3. Energy changes in a chemical reaction. Exothermic and Endothermic Reactions. Application of First Law of Thermodynamics, Hess’s Law of constant heat summation.
4. Chemical Equilibria and rates of reactions. Law of Mass action. Effect of Pressure, Temperature and concentration on the rates of reaction. (Qualitative treatment based on Le Chatelier’s Principle). Molecularity; First and Second order reaction. Concept of Energy of activation. Application to manufacture of Ammonia and Sulphur trioxide.
5. Solutions : True solutions, colloidal solutions and suspensions. Colligative properties of dillute solutions and determination of Molecular weights of dissolved substances. Elevation of boiling points. Depressions of freezing point, osmotic pressure. Raoult’s law (non-thermodynamic treatment only).
6. Electro-Chemistry : Solution of Electrolytes, Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis, ionic equilibria, Solubility product.
Strong and weak electrolytes. Acids and Bases (Lewis and Bronstead concept). pH and Buffer solutions.
7. Oxidation – Reduction; Modern, electronics concept and oxidation number.
8. Natural and Artificial Radioactivity: Nuclear Fission and Fusion. Uses of Radioactive isotopes.

Inorganic Chemistry
Brief Treatment of Elements and their industrially important compounds :
1. Hydrogen : Position in the periodic table. Isotopes of hydrogen. Electronegative and electropositive character. Water, hard and soft water, use of water in industries, Heavy water and its uses.
2. Group I Elements : Manufacture of sodium hydroxide, sodium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate and sodium chloride.
3. Group II Elements : Quick and slaked lime. Gypsum, Plaster of Paris. Magnesium sulphate and Magnesia.
4. Group III Elements: Borax, Alumina and Alum.
5. Group IV Elements : Coals, Coke and solid Fuels, Silicates, Zolitis semi-conductors. Glass (Elementary treatment).
6. Group V Elements. Manufacture of ammonia and nitric acid. Rock Phosphates and safety matches.
7. Group VI Elements. Hydrogen peroxide, allotropy of sulphur, sulphuric acid. Oxides of sulphur.
8. Group VII Elements. Manufacture and uses of Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine, Hydrochloric acid. Bleaching powder.
9. Group O. (Noble gases) Helium and its uses.
10. Metallurgical Processes : General Methods of extraction of metals with specific reference to copper, iron, aluminium, silver, gold, zinc and lead. Common alloys of these metals; Nickel and manganese steels.

Organic Chemistry
1. Tetrahedral nature of carbon, Hybridisation and sigma pie bonds and their relative strength. Single and multiple bonds. Shapes of molecules. Geometrical and optical isomerism.
2. General methods of preparation, properties and reaction of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes, Petroleum and its refining. Its uses as fuel.
Aromatic hydrocarbons : Resonance and aromaticity. Benzene and Naphthalene and their analogues. Aromatic substitution reactions.
3. Halogen derivatives : Chloroform, Carbon Tetrachloride, Chlorobenzene, D.D.T. and Gammexane.
4. Hydroxy Compounds : Preparation, properties and uses of Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols, Methanol, Ethanol, Glycerol and Phenol, Substitution reaction at aliphatic carbon atom.
5. Ethers; Diethyl ether.
6. Aldehydes and ketones : Formaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, acetone, acetophenone.
7. Nitro compounds amines: Nitrobenzene TNT, Anlline, Diazonium Compounds, Azodyes.
8. Carboxylic acid : Formic, acetic, denezoic and salicylic acids, acetyl salicylic acid.
9. Esters : Ethylacerate, Methyl salicylates, ethylbenzoate.
10. Polymers : Polythene, Teflon, Perpex, Artificial Rubber, Nylon and polyester fibers.
11. Nonstructural treatment of Carbohydrates, Fats and Lipids, amino acids and proteins – Vitamins and hormones.

Paper-III
Mathematics
1. Algebra :
Concept of a set, Union and Intersection of sets, Complement of a set, Null set, Universal set and Power set, Venn diagrams and simple applications. Cartesian product of two sets, relation and mapping – examples, Binary operation on a set – examples.
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers: Modulus, Argument, Algebraic operations on complex numbers. Cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers, Conversion of a decimal number to a binary number and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Summation of series involving A.P., G.P., and H.P.. Quadratic equations with real co-efficients. Quadratic expressions: extreme values. Permutation and Combination, Binomial theorem and its applications.
Matrices and Determinants: Types of matrices, equality, matrix addition and scalar multiplication – properties. Matrix multiplication – non-commutative and distributive property over addition. Transpose of a matrix, Determinant of a matrix. Minors and Co-factors. Properties of determinants. Singular and non-singular matrices. Adjoint and Inverse of a square-matrix, Solution of a system of linear equations in two and three variables-elimination method, Cramers rule and Matrix inversion method (Matrices with m rows and n columns where m, n less than equal to 3 are to be considered).
Idea of a Group, Order of a Group, Abelian group. Identitiy and inverse elements-Illustration by simple examples.
2. Trigonometry :
Addition and subtraction formulae, multiple and sub-multiple angles. Products and factoring formulae. Inverse trigonometric functions – Domains, Ranges and Graphs. DeMoivre’s theorem, expansion of Sin n0 and Cos n0 in a series of multiples of Sines and Cosines. Solution of simple trigonometric equations. Applications: Heights and Distance.
3. Analytic Geometry (two dimensions)
Rectangular Cartesian. Coordinate system, distance between two points, equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line. Transformation of axes. Pair of straight lines, general equation of second degree in x and y – condition to represent a pair of straight lines, point of intersection, angle between two lines. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form, equations of tangent and normal at a point, orthogonality of two cricles. Standard equations of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola – parametric equations, equations of tangent and normal at a point in both cartesian and parametric forms.
4. Differential Calculus
Concept of a real valued function – domain, range and graph. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions, algebra of real functions, examples of polynomial, rational, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits – examples. Continuity of functions – examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of a function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative – applications. Derivative of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function, chain rule. Second order derivatives. Rolle’s theorem (statement only), increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima, minima, greatest and least values of a function.
5. Integral Calculus and Differential equations :
Integral Calculus : Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expression, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals-determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves – applications.
Differential equations : Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order and first degree differential equation of various types – examples. Solution of second order homogeneous differential equation with constant co-efficients.
6. Vectors and its applications :
Magnitude and direction of a vector, equal vectors, unit vector, zero vector, vectors in two and three dimensions, position vector. Multiplication of a vector by a scalar, sum and difference of two vectors, Parallelogram law and triangle law of addition. Multiplication of vectors – scalar product or dot product of two vectors, perpendicularity, commutative and distributive properties. Vector product or cross product of two vectors – its properties, unit vector perpendicular to two given vectors. Scalar and vector triple products. Equations of a line, plane and sphere in vector form – simple problems. Area of a triangle, parallelogram and problems of plane geometry and trigonometry using vector methods. Work done by a force and moment of a force.
7. Statistics and probability :
Statistics : Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution – examples. Graphical representation – Histogram, frequency polygon – examples. Measure of central tendency – mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation – determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.
Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability : classical and statistical – examples. Elementary theorems on probability – simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem – simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binomial distribution.

Personality Test
Each candidate will be interviewed by a Board who will have before them a record of his career both academic and extramural. They will be asked questions on matters of general interest. Special attention will be paid to assessing their potential qualities of leadership, initiative and intellectual curiosity, tact and other social qualities, mental and physical energy, power of practical application and integrity of character.
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SCERT Haryana D.T.Ed Counselling Schedule 2011 | SCERT Haryana D.Ed Counselling 2011 | SCERT Haryana D.Ed Admission Seat Vacancy Colleges Wise List

SCERT Haryana D.T.Ed Counselling Schedule 2011 | SCERT Haryana D.Ed Counselling 2011 | SCERT Haryana D.Ed Admission Seat Vacancy Colleges Wise List

State Council Of Educational Research & Training, Haryana Gurgaon-122001
Counselling Schedule:
Tentative dates: September 1, 2010 onwards.
The final Schedule of Counselling will be published in daily news papers viz. Dainik Bhaskar, Dainik Jagran and The Tribune in the last week of August 2011.

Admission Procedure:
The Merit List will purely be prepared on the basis of percentage of marks obtained in 10+2 examination streamwise (Arts, Science, Commerce & Vocational) and distribution of seats will be as under:-
Stream % of seats allotted
Arts 35 %
Science 35 %
Commerce 28 %
Vocational Education 02 %

Note:
1. If the seats in Science stream remain vacant then it will be converted into Commerce stream and vice versa.
2. If in all three i.e. Science, Commerce and Vocational Education stream seats remain vacant then it will be converted into Arts stream seats.
3. The detail of Institution wise seats is available on SCERT website www.scertharyana.in

Reservation :-
Reservation in different categories will be made as per Haryana govt. instructions issued from time to time. 50% of the seats shall be reserved for the candidates of the following reserved

categories:-
Category

i) Scheduled Castes: 20%
ii) Backward Classes: 27%
Block – A 16%
Block-B 11%

(Except socially advanced persons/section i.e. creamy layer) iii) Physically Handicapped (OH) 3% Note: In case the quota reserved for physically handicapped remains unutilized due to non availability of suitable & eligible handicapped candidates, it will be offered to the ex-servicemen (Self) and their wards (1%) and the dependents of freedom fighters (1%) Further it has been decided to allow 3% horizontal reservation to Ex-servicemen (self), freedom fighters and their dependents by providing reservation within reservation of 1% of General category 1% out of scheduled castes and 1% from backward class’s category for admission to the various education institutions of the Government and Government aided/self financing colleges/ institutes located in Haryana.
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Infosys Latest Placement Paper

Infosys Placement Paper Held on 28 January 2010 | Infosys Latest Placement Paper

INFOSYS
date
place: KSRM college, kadapa
first 1 hour: filling application
written test:

section 1: analytical test consisting of questions on aptitude and reasoning
30 questions — 40 minutes
cutoff:60%
-some data is given as there are 5 friends j,k,l,m,n. each has some amount, conditions are given regarding this.Based on this 5 questions are given.We can answer this based on the given conditions.
(I felt this some what difficult to answer)
-5 non verbal questions
a series of 4 figures will b given we shud find the next one in series.
(very easy to answer)
-5 questions on question-statements
each question given below is followed by two statements I and II
give answer a)if only I is sufficient to answer

b)if only II is sufficient to answer
c)if either I or II is sufficient
d)if both are essential to answer
e)if none is sufficient to answer

11.there is a rectangular tank.how much water is required to increase the present water level by one feet?
I.the dimensions of tank are 300*200*100 cu.ft
II.now the tank is full upto 6ft

12.whats the time now?
I. the minutes hand is at 6
II. the hours hand is half way between 9 and 10

13.how many days is required for 4 men to complete the building?
I.3 men can complete the work in 12 days
II.a man can conplete 1/4 th of the work in a day

14.x>y?
I .x,y are whole numbers
II. x is an even prime,5<7

I forgot the remaining one question of this section
-5 questions on data interpretation
It was very very easy
-a puzzle test of classification type consisting of 5 questions based on given data
(it can be easily solved by using the tabular method of solving
it is similar to 1st question in 1st exercise of classification type questions of puzzle test)
-5 questions on syllogisms
(very simple)
section 2:english test
40 questions--35 minutes
-a paragraph is given
5 questions regarding the paragraph
-another paragraph is given
5 questions regarding the paragraph
-10 questions on correction of sentences
(mostly related to tense)
-10 questions
find out the best alternative for the underlined part of given sentence from the given options
-10 questions on theme detection

interview: it was about 20 minutes
me:excuse me sir
hr:plz comin take ur seat
so u r gowthami mokshagunda
me:no sir its mokshagundam
hr:so is that ur sur name
me:yes sir
hr:so u r a computer science student.why u chose computer science ?
me:now a days computers r ruling the world so to lead in this world i felt that i should be familiar with computers and technology so i have chosen computer science
hr:do you think computers are helping us?
me:yes sir
hr:many people argue that use of computers is leading to unemployment..what do u say?
me: getting a job or being employed is based on our capabilities.we should be adoptable to technology. we cant find fault with computers for that. computer r helping us in many ways like ....etc etc....
hr:looking into my resume hmm extra curriculars this is the part in which am very much interested..so u presented a paper on IDS...can u explain briefly about that?
me:i explained about my paper
hr:so you got first prize in skit..can u explain about the theme,the whole team work,the way u plannaed, ur role etc...in 5 minutes
me: i explained about the whole idea..etc etc
hr:so u organised many events of your college...tell me how you did all those..
me:bla bla bla
hr:suppose you are in a team of five members and your team is given a task and two members of your team are not involving in the work..what do you do to get them involved?
me:I will be friendly and try to convince them by explaining about the task,nature of work,
how they get benefited by doing that--------
hr:still there is no change then?
me:then there is a need for optimal decision i.e.,complaint to the lead
hr:this is the answer am expecting...
so do u have any questions to ask?
me:yes sir
hr:ya plz
me:what kind of technical stuff is needed to get into infosys?
hr:nothing...technically every aspect will be taught to u at training period...
me:if I get selected now what should I learn before getting into Infosys?
hr:hmm...concentrate on your area of improvement.your language and accent is good you hav good academic qualification..but there are some grammatical mistakes in your language..though they are unnoticable,rectifying them brings a difference...so try to rectify that..thats all...
ok gowthami...thank u u can go
me:thank u sir.
preperation I had:
rs agarwal verbal reasoning
for theme detection,puzzle test,question-statements,analogy,data sufficiency,data interpretation,syllogisms
(syllogisms:
keywords:all,no,some,some not
if all premises have keywords----venn diagram method
if some premises have keywords----tabular method
if none of the premises have keywords----general thinking)
a rouch view of rs agarwal non verbal questions on series figures
rs agarwal aptitude for english
jvr english grammar book
top 100 words for gre and some basic grammar rules i have wren n martin is also preferred by many but i havnt seen dat and also shakuntala devi 'puzzles for u'
puzzles by george summers-------go for these puzzles if possible not so important
(tense forms:
if i go i shall meet ur brother
if i went i would meet ur brother
if i had gone i would have met ur brother)
in attempting section 1 do the data interpretation at last in section 2 do passages at last
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BTEUP First Year Result 2011 | BTEUP Second Year Result 2011 | BTEUP Final Year Result 2011 | www.bteup.com

BTEUP First Year Result 2011 | BTEUP Second Year Result 2011 | BTEUP Final Year Result 2011 | www.bteup.com

Uttar Pradesh Board of Technical Education (BTEUP) published the First year, second year, final year examination result 2011.

Click Here To BTEUP First Year Result
Second Year Result
BTEUP Final Year Result

Board of Technical Education, Uttar Pradesh is the board which provide technical education to student’s after completing course student called junior engineer’s the course is of three year’s it is also called three year diploma. BTEUP has mostly government colleges and very less private colleges. There are about 31 trades in group A like computer science,IT, mechanical electrical, electronics, automobile, civil. There are more than 80 colleges of BTEUP in group A some other group’s are b,c,d,e,f,g,h,i it contain branches like textile home science agriculture textile etc. it is very tough board of polytechnic’s
* No medium in board can give paper English as well as Hindi
* Low fees as compared to private colleges abt 14500 Rs(Indian). Government college fee’s 9350 R.s(hostel+course)(3350+6000)
* 18000 seats about more than 4 lac student’s.
* Minimum Qualification is High School Pass.
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Accenture Latest Placement Paper | Accenture Placement Paper Held on July 2011

Accenture Latest Placement Paper | Accenture Placement Paper Held on July 2011

Accenture Placement Paper Held on 2nd July 2010
No of Rounds :
1.Aptitude Test
2.Technical Round-1
3. Group Discussion – GD,
4.Client/Manager Interview

on 2nd July there was a written test given by 2691 students of ours in which about 600 were short listed .written was totally dependent on the speed. it was followed by a group discussion on the same day. finally I have been selected and I’m of EKE branch from Technocrats institute of technology (TIT), Bhopal. by the time my result was announced 145 had been selected and the process was going on.

The written test contained 3 sections i.e. analytical skills (mostly from Venn diagrams, and a set of questions on whether a candidate willow 2nd July there was a written test given by 2691 students of ours in which about 600 were short listed .written was totally dependent on the speed. it was followed by a group discussion on the same day. finally I have been selected and I’m of EKE branch by the time my result was announced 145 had been selected and the process was going on.

GD was based only on your speaking abilities and communication skills and there is no need to panic if you don’t know anything, just say the way you are hearted. you would be selected.

Then on next day first was the technical interview and I had mentioned computer architecture as my area of interest so I was asked
* Difference between an interpreter and a compiler
* What is an OS explain its functioning
I was also asked lots of questions from HR such as
* Describe yourself.
* Your family background
* Your strengths how did these help you?
* You hobbies and how are they helpful to you.
* Where do you see yourself 5 years down the line?
* What knowledge have you acquired in the technical field in last 4 years?

He also asked me from managerial/decision making field like in Accenture if you have work against your area of interest for 7 months then after this period how would you behave with your project manager.
followed by technical I had my HR which seem to be nothing but a formality with only 2 or 3 questions on my hobbies and their use. be selected or not in a college on subjected to the three conditions i.e. clearing cutoff marks, ability to pay the fees etc.), easiest part was mind checking (to choose same nos. out of a group of 3 eg_123.45678, 124.45678 etc., if * is /, – is + then 23*4-45=? there were 3 questions on this same patter to check which of the 4 options is true, so don’t waste your time in those) and a section on English (it contained 2 passages very easy one on IBM os2.0 and other on rs-232, then few as on articles and 3 as to replace the italicized word with the correct synonym.)

GD was based only on your speaking abilities and communication skills and there is no need to panic if you don’t know anything, just say the way you are headed. you would be selected.
Then on next day first was the technical interview and I had mentioned computer architecture as my area of interest so I was asked difference between an interpreter and a compiler
* what is an OS explain its functioning. I was also asked lots of questions from HR such as
* describe yourself.
* your family background
* your strengths how did these help you?
* you hobbies and how are they helpful to you.
* where do you see yourself 5 years down the line?
* what knowledge have you acquired in the technical field in last 4 years?

He also asked me from managerial/decision making field liken Accenture if you have work against your area of interest for 7 months then after this period how would you behave with your project manager.
Followed by technical I had my HR which seem to be nothing but a formality with only 2 or 3 questions on my hobbies and their use.
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ABB Latest Placement Paper Pattern Held at Bangalore

ABB Latest Placement Paper | ABB Latest Placement Paper Pattern Held at Bangalore

ABB Latest Placement Paper Pattern
NO. OF QUESTIONS : 40
TIME: 45 MINUTES


1. in a ckt. We r giving voltage of 50 Hz as well as 60. then what will be the resultant frequency.
(a)less than 50 (b) more than 60 (c) in between 50 & 60 (d) none

2.In a ckt a single resistor is connected across a d.c. source, what will be the effect on current in first resistor if we connect one more resistance in parallel with earlier one….

3.why we don,t like flashover in transmission line (t-line)- (a ) it may create earth fault(b )it reduces the life of insulator…..
Read something about flashover & puncture.

4.total no of strands in a acsr conductor is 81, then what is the no. of conductor in its outer layer….(a)36 (b)18 (c)24…….Also read some more on acsr.

5.Two questions based on p.u. calculation like , p.u. calculation is given with respect to some old base and u have to calculate it with reference to new base. (new resistance/old)=(mva new /mva old)*(old voltage/new voltage) 2 Other question is based upon transfer of p.u calculation in transformer i.e. how base changes when we we move from primary tosecondary or like wise.read some more on p.u calculation.

6.which table is referred for sag calculation-
(a)stringing chart……answer

7.in a R-L ckt a ac voltage is applied , such that instantaneous power is negative for 2ms, then what will be the power factor.
(a) 9 deg, (b) 18 deg, (c) 36 Deg………..(I don,t know the correct ans)

8. In an incandescent lamp
(a) luminous intensity is more than non-luminous intensity (b) ,, ,, ,, less ,, ,, ,,

9. In which motor no-load to full-load diff. is lowest
(a) series motor, (b) shunt motor, (c) Compound motor

10. In a 60Hz induction motor full load speed is 850 rpm then what is the Synchronous speed.
(a) 900 rpm, (b) 950 rpm, (c) 1600rpm…

11. A sync. Motor is running at synch. Speed, if al of sudden D.C. excitation is removed, then
(a) it will rotate at slip speed, (b) it will stop, (c) it will continue to rotate at sync. Speed

12. A transmission line is designed for 50Hz, 440KV. If we want to transfer power at 60Hz, 440 KV, then the power transfer capability will
(a) decrease, (b) Increase, (c) None

13. Increased rotor resistance in rotor ckt of induction motor is related with
(a) high starting torque, (b) more speed variation,

14. In the formulae E = 4.44 f N ?, ? is
(a) Avg value, (b) Rms value, (c) Maximum value

15. Voltage & current in a ckt is given by V= V1+j V2 and I= I1 +j I2, then rms power is…

16. Input impedence of MOSFET is
(a) more than BJT

17, 18. Remember truth table of AND, NOR, NAND, OR, EX-OR ETC…

19. Conversion of Binary number into Equivalent decimal No.

20. Megger is used for the measurement of
(a) Insulation resistance, (b)Conductor resistance

21. Form factor for sinusoidal as well as DC

22. Formulae of Regulation (Vs- Vr)* 100/ Vr, then transmission line is
(a) short transmission line, (b) long, (c) medium

23. Improvement in power factor reduces
(a) power consumed by consumer, (b) power generation, (c) both a & b

24. Read about field test of Series Motor…

25. No-load test for Synchronous motor, the graph is drawn
(a) stator open ckt emf Vs field current

26. An AC voltage of 50Hz is impressed in a resistive ckt, the oscillating power has a frequency
(a) 50 Hz, (b) 100, (c) no oscillating power is there in resistive ckt

27. Insulation used in transformer ___________leakage flux.
(a) increases, (b) decreases

28.After rain what happens to Insulator
(a) break-down strength of Insulator decreases, (b)Arch length reduces

29.Diversity factor helps to …………(what ?) [Read diversity factor, load factor, Reserve capacity factor in depth, with calculation]

30. Why capacitance is shown as a Shunt element in analysis of transmission line
(a) it is between Conductor & earth, (b) because Admittance is used for calculation of capacitive reactance

31. B-R-Y sequence is followed in three phase system, if phase voltage in B-phase is Vm sin 100, then the phase voltage in R-phase would be
(a) Vm sin (-20)

32. In a particular ckt I = Im Sin (wt -270) and V = Vm Sin wt, then type of ckt is (a) pure resistive ckt

33. In a L-R ckt energy lost = 2000 W, energy conserved = 500W, then what is the time constant

34. In electro-dynamometer A,meter & wattmeter the type of scale is

35. For the same current carrying capacity corona loss of ACSR will be ________than copper conductor.
(a) more, (b) less, (c) equal. Ans: (b)
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3i Infotech Placement Paper Aptitude Section Sample Questions | Aptitude Questions For 3i Infotech Placement Paper

3i Infotech Placement Paper Aptitude Section Sample Questions | Aptitude Questions For 3i Infotech Placement Paper

1. In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy (Ans.C)

2. What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 (Ans.D)

3. If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 (Ans.B)

4. A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90 B.Rs.1.00 C.Rs.3.00 D.Rs.8.00 (Ans.C)

5. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 (Ans.B)

6. In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 (Ans.B)

7. If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2 (Ans.C)

8. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a (B) b . a (C) b = a (D) b .= a (Ans. A)

9. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)

10. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)

11. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)

12. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)

13. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)

14. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe (Ans 5c1/ 9c1)

15.What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned (Ans: Rs 66/-)

16. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.

17. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% (Ans: 42.857%)

18. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square. (Ans. 11/14 )

19. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.

20. f M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?

21. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?

22. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST . (Ans: 1:2 )

23. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )

24. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes (Ans: 6c2/10c2)

25. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol. (Ans : 15% )

26. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ? (Ans : 57.50 )

27. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x b) x2 (c) รข€“x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )

28. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph

29. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay? (Ans: 6%)

30. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it? (Ans: 9)

31. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? (Ans : 9B)

32. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase? (Ans : 300%)

33. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet

34. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times

35. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
(Ans: 36%)

36.City A’s population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population? (Ans: 130 years)

37.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet? (Ans: 3/2 hours)

38. A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won’t able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans: 9

39.There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.

40. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))

41. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2

42. Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quantities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))

43. In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))

44. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)

45. Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 – 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 – 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)

46. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can’t say (Ans. B)

47. A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs. What is the distance traveled
(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)

48. Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?

49. Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)

50. A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid. What is the % of water in the new mixture?

51. If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?

52. Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?

53. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)

54. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)

55. In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)

56. If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)

57. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)

58. How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)
x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can’t be determined Ans. C

59. The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)

60. A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)

61. The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?

62. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?

63. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)

64. A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)

65. A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below. (Figure is not available) What is the area of the plank? ( Ans :7*(2)1/2 )

66. What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)

67. A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father’s present age ?
(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)

68. An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?

69. If an item costs Rs.3 in ’99 and Rs.203 in ’00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)

70. 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)

71. A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?
a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)

72. In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are —. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)

73. An article sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the article?
a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)

74. A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home. One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)

75. A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22½days

76. How many 1′s are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4

77. In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?

78. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the number of ways in which this is possible? (Ans. 16)

79. If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors. Find the memory required for this? (Ans. 4MB)

80. On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says “A says that he is a liar” What is B speaking ?(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)

81. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30
Ans. 75(approx)

82. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in totality ?

83. A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his right.In which direction did he go (Ans. North west)

84. A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject.

85. A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother’s only son.What is the relation between the two
Ans. Daughter

86. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266

87. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b)

88. 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b)

89. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g (Ans. (c))

90. If x/y=4 and y is not ’0′ what % of x is 2x-y
(a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250% (Ans. (b))
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